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Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1. The products of meiosis in plants are always which of the following?
a. spores
b. eggs
c. sperm
d. seeds
e. both B and C
2. Which of the following is the correct sequence during alternation of generations in a flowering plant?
a. sporophyte-meiosis-gametophyte-gametes-fertilization-diploid zygote
b. sporophyte-mitosis-gametophyte-meiosis-sporophyte
c. haploid gametophyte-gametes-meiosis-fertilization-diploid sporophyte
d. sporophyte-spores-meiosis-gametophyte-gametes
e. haploid sporophyte-spores-fertilization-diploid gametophyte
3. Which of the following is true in plants?
a. Meiosis occurs in gametophytes to produce gametes.
b. Meiosis occurs in sporophytes to produce spores.
c. The gametophyte is the dominant generation in flowering plants.
d. Plants exist continually as either sporophytes or gametophytes.
e. Male gametophytes and female gametophytes have the same structure.
4. All of the following are features of angiosperms except:
a. a triploid endosperm.
b. an ovary that becomes a fruit.
c. animal pollination.
d. a small (reduced) sporophyte.
e. double fertilization.
5. All of the following floral parts are directly involved in pollination or fertilization except the:
a. stigma.
b. anther.
c. sepal.
d. carpel.
e. style.
6. A mutation in which of the following floral parts would have the greatest impact on pollination?
a. sepal
b. petal
c. stamen
d. carpel
e. either C or D
7. A mutation in which of the following floral parts would have the greatest potential impact on fertilization?
a. sepal
b. petal
c. stamen
d. carpel
e. either C or D
8. Which of the following is the correct order of floral organs from the outside to the inside of a complete flower?
a. petals-sepals-stamens-carpels
b. sepals-stamens-petals-carpels
c. spores-gametes-zygote-embryo
d. sepals-petals-stamens-carpels
e. male gametophyte-female gametophyte-sepals-petals
9. All of the following are primary functions of flowers except:
a. pollen production.
b. photosynthesis.
c. meiosis.
d. egg production.
e. sexual reproduction.
10. Meiosis occurs within all of the following flower parts except the:
a. ovule.
b. style.
c. megasporangium.
d. anther.
e. ovary.
11. A perfect flower is fertile, but may be either complete or incomplete. Which of the following correctly describes a perfect flower?
a. It has no sepals.
b. It has fused carpels.
c. It is on a dioecious plant.
d. It has no endosperm.
e. It has both stamens and carpels.
12. Which of the following types of plants is not able to self-pollinate?
a. dioecious
b. monoecious
c. complete
d. wind-pollinated
e. insect-pollinated
13. In flowering plants, pollen is released from the:
a. anther.
b. stigma.
c. carpel.
d. filament.
e. pollen tube.
14. In the life cycle of an angiosperm, which of the following stages is diploid?
a. megaspore
b. generative nucleus of a pollen grain
c. polar nuclei of the embryo sac
d. microsporocyte
e. both megaspore and polar nuclei
15. Where does meiosis occur in flowering plants?
a. megasporocyte
b. microsporocyte
c. endosperm
d. pollen tube
e. megasporocyte and microsporocyte
16. Which of the following is a correct sequence of processes that takes place when a flowering plant reproduces?
a. meiosis-fertilization-ovulation-germination
b. fertilization-meiosis-nuclear fusion-formation of embryo and endosperm
c. meiosis-pollination-nuclear fusion-formation of embryo and endosperm
d. growth of pollen tube-pollination-germination-fertilization
e. meiosis-mitosis-nuclear fusion-pollen
17. Which of these is incorrectly paired with its life-cycle generation?
a. anther-gametophyte
b. pollen-gametophyte
c. embryo sac-gametophyte
d. stamen-sporophyte
e. embryo-sporophyte
18. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in a pollen sac?
a. sporangia-meiosis-two haploid cells-meiosis-two pollen grains per cell
b. pollen grain-meiosis-two generative cells-two tube cells per pollen grain
c. two haploid cells-meiosis-generative cell-tube cell-fertilization-pollen grain
d. pollen grain-mitosis-microspores-meiosis-generative cell plus tube cell
e. microsporocyte-meiosis-microspores-mitosis-two haploid cells per pollen grain
19. Which of the following occurs in an angiosperm ovule?
a. An antheridium forms from the megasporophyte.
b. A megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis.
c. The egg nucleus is usually diploid.
d. A pollen tube emerges to accept pollen after pollination.
e. The endosperm surrounds the megaspore mother cell.
20. Where and by which process are sperm produced in plants?
a. meiosis in pollen grains
b. meiosis in anthers
c. mitosis in male gametophytes
d. mitosis in the micropyle
e. mitosis in the embryo sac
21. In which of the following pairs are the two terms equivalent?
a. ovule-egg
b. embryo sac-female gametophyte
c. endosperm-male gametophyte
d. seed-zygote
e. microspore-pollen grain
22. Which of the following is the male gametophyte of a flowering plant?
a. ovule
b. microsporocyte
c. pollen grain
d. embryo sac
e. stamen
The following questions refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an angiosperm.
23. Which cell(s), after fertilization, give(s) rise to the embryo plant?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
24. Which cell(s) become(s) the triploid endosperm?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
25. What is the relationship between pollination and fertilization in flowering plants?
a. Fertilization precedes pollination.
b. Pollination easily occurs between plants of different species.
c. Pollen is formed within megasporangia so that male and female gametes are near each other.
d. Pollination brings gametophytes together so that fertilization can occur.
e. If fertilization occurs, pollination is unnecessary.
26. Genetic incompatibility does not affect the
a. attraction of a suitable insect pollinator.
b. germination of the pollen on the stigma.
c. growth of the pollen tube in the style.
d. membrane permeability of cells.
e. different individuals of the same species.
27. The integuments of an ovule function to do what?
a. protect against animal predation
b. ensure double fertilization
c. form a seed coat
d. both A and B
e. both A and C
28. A fruit includes
a. one or more seeds.
b. the ovary wall.
c. fleshy cells rich in sugars.
d. brightly colored pigments to attract animal dispersers.
e. both A and B
29. Which of the following is not an advantage of an extended gametophyte generation in plants?
a. Male gametophytes can travel more easily within spore walls.
b. The protection of female gametophytes within ovules keeps them from drying out.
c. The lack of need for swimming sperm makes life on land easier.
d. Female gametophytes develop egg cells, which are fertilized within an ovule that will become a seed.
e. Endosperm forms a protective seed coat.
30. What is typically the result of double fertilization in angiosperms?
a. The endosperm develops into a diploid nutrient tissue.
b. A triploid zygote is formed.
c. Both a diploid embryo and triploid endosperm are formed.
d. Two embryos develop in every seed.
e. The fertilized antipodal cells develop into the seed coat.
31. Which of the following statements regarding the endosperm is false?
a. Its nutrients may be absorbed by the cotyledons in the seeds of eudicots.
b. It develops from a triploid cell.
c. Its nutrients are digested by enzymes in monocot seeds following hydration.
d. It develops from the fertilized egg.
e. It is rich in nutrients, which it provides to the embryo.
32. What is the embryonic root called?
a. plumule
b. hypocotyl
c. epicotyl
d. radicle
e. shoot
33. Which of the following “vegetables” is botanically a fruit?
a. potato
b. lettuce
c. radish
d. celery
e. green beans
34. Which of these structures is unique to the seed of a monocot?
a. cotyledon
b. endosperm
c. coleoptile
d. radicle
e. seed coat
35. Fruits develop from:
a. microsporangia.
b. receptacles.
c. fertilized eggs.
d. ovaries.
e. ovules.
36. The first step in the germination of a seed is usually:
a. pollination.
b. fertilization.
c. imbibition of water.
d. hydrolysis of starch and other food reserves.
e. emergence of the radicle.
37. When seeds germinate, the radicle emerges before the shoot. This allows the seedling to quickly:
a. obtain a dependable water supply.
b. mobilize stored carbohydrates.
c. protect the emerging coleoptile.
d. avoid etiolation.
e. initiate photosynthesis.
38. In plants, which of the following could be an advantage of sexual reproduction as opposed to asexual reproduction?
a. genetic variation
b. mitosis
c. stable populations
d. rapid population increase
e. greater longevity
39. Regardless of where in the world a vineyard is located, in order for the winery to produce a Burgundy, it must use varietal grapes that originated in Burgundy, France. The most effective way for a new California grower to plant a vineyard to produce Burgundy is to:
a. plant seeds obtained from French varietal Burgundy grapes.
b. transplant varietal Burgundy plants from France.
c. root cuttings of varietal Burgundy grapes from France.
d. cross French Burgundy grapes with native American grapes.
e. graft varietal Burgundy grape scions onto native (Californian) root stocks.
40. Which of the following is not a scientific concern relating to creating genetically modified crops?
a. Herbicide resistance may spread to weedy species.
b. Insect pests may evolve resistance to toxins more rapidly.
c. Nontarget species may be affected.
d. The monetary costs of growing genetically modified plants are significantly greater than traditional breeding techniques.
e. Genetically modified plants may lead to unknown risks to human health.
Angiosperm Reproduction Questions
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: A TOP: Concept 38.1
2. ANS: A TOP: Concept 38.1
3. ANS: B TOP: Concept 38.1
4. ANS: D TOP: Concept 38.1
5. ANS: C TOP: Concept 38.1
6. ANS: E TOP: Concept 38.1
7. ANS: E TOP: Concept 38.1
8. ANS: D TOP: Concept 38.1
9. ANS: B TOP: Concept 38.1
10. ANS: B TOP: Concept 38.1
11. ANS: E TOP: Concept 38.1
12. ANS: A TOP: Concept 38.1
13. ANS: A TOP: Concept 38.1
14. ANS: D TOP: Concept 38.1
15. ANS: E TOP: Concept 38.1
16. ANS: C TOP: Concept 38.1
17. ANS: A TOP: Concept 38.1
18. ANS: E TOP: Concept 38.1
19. ANS: B TOP: Concept 38.1
20. ANS: C TOP: Concept 38.1
21. ANS: B TOP: Concept 38.1
22. ANS: C TOP: Concept 38.1
23. ANS: B TOP: Concept 38.1
24. ANS: C TOP: Concept 38.1
25. ANS: D TOP: Concept 38.1
26. ANS: A TOP: Concept 38.1
27. ANS: C TOP: Concept 38.2
28. ANS: E TOP: Concept 38.2
29. ANS: E TOP: Concept 38.2
30. ANS: C TOP: Concept 38.2
31. ANS: D TOP: Concept 38.2
32. ANS: D TOP: Concept 38.2
33. ANS: E TOP: Concept 38.2
34. ANS: C TOP: Concept 38.2
35. ANS: D TOP: Concept 38.2
36. ANS: C TOP: Concept 38.2
37. ANS: A TOP: Concept 38.2
38. ANS: A TOP: Concept 38.3
39. ANS: E TOP: Concept 38.3
40. ANS: D TOP: Concept 38.4
E
A
B
D
C
B
D
D
B
B
E
A
A
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